Election Data

CLAY S clay at brokenladder.com
Sun Jul 27 00:44:34 UTC 2008


On Sat, Jul 26, 2008 at 17:25, seth vidal <skvidal at fedoraproject.org> wrote:

> Sufficient anonymization would mean the data would end up being:
>
> AAA:BBBBBBBB:CCC


Well, no.  You would have:

ballot 001: {Jones : 10, Smith : 9, Adams : 0}
ballot 002: {Jones : 6, Smith : 0, Adams 10}
etc.

Maybe a particular individual could identify his ballot if only one ballot
was like the one he cast.  But then only _he_ knows that's his ballot.
There's no privacy disclosure issue here.

Now, there is an issue that he could sell his vote in this case.  But I
don't imagine that's a serious problem for you.


> Seriously, there's no good way to anonymize it enough w/o making it
> useless.


Huh?

More to the point, no one would believe it was sufficiently anonymized.


You don't have to "believe" the data is anonymized.  You can prove it.  If
there's any information that identifies the identity of the voter, it's not
anonymized.
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